A few years ago I required the services of a lawyer in Amsterdam. They always billed me ex VAT because we are in Switzerland, not in EU etc.
I now have the same situation but the lawyer is in the UK. I assume that the situation is the same but my question is...
1) Is it correct that they can also bill me ex VAT
2) If so, why exactly?
I did read this thread... buying services in UK, invoice to swiss address, paying VAT?
However, I cannot say it made things crystal clear. Would it be because the "place of supply" is Switzerland?
The reason I ask is that I may need to explain to the lawyer why I would like to be billed ex VAT, if indeed it is proper to do so.