You mean why Homer is a dipthong in the 1st syllable in Eng but it is [u] in Ger? I don't think there is any real historical explanation, loaned names after the main phonetic shifts have their own ways, I think?
Altough, there is analogy with home which used to be if I remember well prononced more like huome, before, just like in other languages (we have duom -> doum -> dům), monopthongization of dipthongs happened all over, German might be the same way (the sound [humer]), but again, I do think that names are somewhat exempt, but believe that the way people tend to pronounce is infuenced by the similarly written words (so there would be influence by the same shift, just 2nd hand). I am not sure if there would be any new occlusion since the m sound was always there in that name, or palatalization, though, since there is no consonant to palatalize. I think the English pronounciation is a matter of comfort, the stress on the first syllable helps the rounding of the ou dipthong, rather than following the real old Greek way where it was the 2nd syllable, that was accented, no? Just a theory, might be all off base here.
But NO, it is NOT "u" in German but a full "O" and even the H is not emphasised while the "E" is.
But NO, it is NOT "u" in German but a full "O" and even the H is not emphasised while the "E" is.
Just read the title, I was commenting on that question (who- with the sound[u]). Monophtonization is exactly what I wrote (and you) it is [o] or [u] as per OP, instead of the Englishg [ou]..it makes sense the [e] is what it is if it is accentuated, accent on the the 2nd syl then. I doubt that German would pronounce it the old, traditional and original way, anyways, and why should it. People always use their phonemic filter to massacre any original sound into what their brains think they are hearing.
People at work pronounce my name based completely on how many languages they speak and how exposed they have been to other cultures. At least they stopped asking me how one pronouces my name in Polish, Ukrainian and Romanian, hahaha...It's true, though, that our Homer is more [oumr] than [ume:r], [r] being the lovely Francophone one.
__________________ "L'homme ne peut pas remplacer son coeur avec sa tete, ni sa tete avec ses mains." J.H. Pestalozzi
“The only difference between a rut and a grave is a matter of depth.” S.P. Cadman
"Imagination is more important than knowledge." A. Einstein
Just read the title, I was commenting on that question (who- with the sound[u]). Monophtonization is exactly what I wrote (and you) it is [o] or [u] as per OP, instead of the Englishg [ou]..it makes sense the [e] is what it is if it is accentuated, accent on the the 2nd syl then. I doubt that German would pronounce it the old, traditional and original way, anyways, and why should it. People always use their phonemic filter to massacre any original sound into what their brains think they are hearing.
People at work pronounce my name based completely on how many languages they speak and how exposed they have been to other cultures. At least they stopped asking me how one pronouces my name in Polish, Ukrainian and Romanian, hahaha...It's true, though, that our Homer is more [oumr] than [ume:r], [r] being the lovely Francophone one.
The "o" in Homer in German clearly is "o" as in "dot" and absolutely NOT "u" as in "Hoover". And anybody here speaking it the English way says "Houmer". The name in fact is a tiny bit older than the TV series mentioned